I have heard many urban legends surrounding drug use and the likes, but it is completely absurd that people would think that possession with intent to sell "acid" can incur manslaughter charges. Not one other infraction (in US law) that I am aware of allows for a completely unrelated charge to be brought against the accused. I understand that they both carry similar first offense sentences (5-10/15 yrs), but anyone who I try to explain this to cuts me off explaining that "no, you actually get slapped with "manslaughter" charges". Perhaps I need new, more intelligent friends haha... Anyone have any insight into why?
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